CIS-EM ServiceNow Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps
Question No: 1
What term is used to refer to copies of checks
that are included in Agent Client Collector policies?
A. Check definitions
B. Check models
C. Check clones
D. Check mirrors
E. Check instances
Correct Answer:
D. Check mirrors
Explanation:
In the context of Agent Client Collector (ACC)
policies, the correct term for copies of checks included in these policies is
"Check mirrors." The term "check mirror" refers to the
process where duplicate or mirrored versions of checks are generated and stored
to ensure proper tracking, validation, and auditing. These mirrored checks are
used to ensure that all transactions are accurately captured and can be
referenced if necessary for compliance, security, or troubleshooting purposes.
The term "check mirror" is important
because it emphasizes that these copies are not directly executed or processed
in the same way as the original checks. Instead, they serve as a backup or
snapshot of the check’s state at a specific point in time, making it easier to
monitor and manage checks without directly affecting the primary operation or
database.
When implementing security policies or auditing
mechanisms within a system, these "mirrors" can help to enhance
reliability. For instance, if a check is lost, corrupted, or needs to be
reviewed, the mirrored version can provide a reliable point of reference
without needing to access the original data directly. In many systems,
"check mirrors" can also help ensure that any updates or changes to
the original checks are properly replicated to avoid discrepancies.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Check definitions: This refers to the actual definitions or configurations of
checks, not their duplicates.
B. Check models: This typically refers to the structures or templates that define
how checks should behave or be processed, not copies of the checks themselves.
C. Check clones: While clones might suggest copies, the term "clones"
generally implies exact replicas that may not specifically align with the
context of "mirroring."
E. Check instances: This would refer to specific occurrences or cases of checks,
rather than copies of them within a policy framework.
Thus, "check mirrors" is the most
accurate term for copies of checks included in Agent Client Collector policies.
Question No: 2
How frequently do baseline event connectors
retrieve events?
A. Every 30 seconds
B. Every 2 minutes
C. Every 10 minutes
D. Every 1 minute
E. Every 5 minutes
Correct Answer:
A. Every 30 seconds
Explanation:
Baseline event connectors are used in event
management systems to collect and retrieve events from different sources to
ensure that critical information is up-to-date for analysis, monitoring, and
response. The retrieval frequency for these connectors is a key factor in ensuring
that the system is responsive and capable of quickly processing events.
The correct answer is Every 30 seconds, as
baseline event connectors typically pull new event data at intervals of 30
seconds. This ensures that the system receives data frequently enough to detect
potential issues or anomalies in near real-time, which is crucial for proactive
monitoring and security purposes.
The 30-second retrieval interval strikes a
balance between ensuring timely data collection and minimizing system resource usage.
A shorter retrieval time, such as every minute or 30 seconds, helps ensure that
any critical events, such as security breaches, system failures, or performance
degradation, are detected and addressed quickly.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Every 2 minutes: A 2-minute interval may not be frequent enough for systems
requiring rapid event detection and response. Critical events might go
unnoticed for a longer period.
C. Every 10 minutes: This frequency is too long for baseline event connectors to be
effective in environments that require more immediate detection and action.
D. Every 1 minute: While one minute could work for many use cases, it is slightly
longer than the more common 30-second interval used for optimal performance.
E. Every 5 minutes: A 5-minute interval is also too slow for many environments that
require faster data retrieval to ensure that no critical issues are overlooked.
Thus, every 30 seconds is the typical frequency
at which baseline event connectors retrieve events to provide the right level
of responsiveness without overwhelming system resources.
Question No: 3
Which attribute is used to correlate multiple
events into a single alert?
A. Additional_info
B. Message_key
C. Metric_name
D. Short_description
Correct Answer:
B. Message_key
Explanation:
In event management and monitoring systems, one
of the challenges is managing a large number of events that may be related to
the same underlying issue. To solve this, event correlation is used to combine
multiple events into a single alert. This process allows for easier management,
reducing the noise caused by duplicate or repetitive events, and focusing
attention on the root cause of the issue. The Message_key attribute plays a
crucial role in this event correlation.
The Message_key is the attribute that uniquely
identifies and groups related events. When multiple events share the same
Message_key, they are linked together and reported as a single alert. This
correlation makes it easier for operators and security teams to identify
trends, detect anomalies, and focus on solving a problem rather than being
overwhelmed by the volume of individual events.
By associating events with the same Message_key,
the system can reduce alert fatigue and provide a clearer view of ongoing
issues. This helps in quickly determining whether a series of events is part of
a broader problem or if they are isolated incidents.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Additional_info: While Additional_info may contain supplementary data about an
event, it is not used specifically to correlate multiple events into a single
alert.
C. Metric_name: This attribute typically refers to the specific metric being
measured (e.g., CPU usage, memory usage), but it does not correlate events.
D. Short_description: The Short_description gives a brief overview of the event but does
not serve as a means to link related events into one alert.
Therefore, Message_key is the correct attribute
for correlating multiple events into a single alert, providing a more efficient
way of monitoring and managing system events.
Question No: 4
Which attribute is used to combine multiple
events into a single alert?
A. Event Rules
B. Message Key
C. Alert Priority
D. Severity
Correct Answer:
B. Message Key
Explanation:
In event management systems, consolidating
multiple related events into a single alert is essential for improving response
efficiency and reducing unnecessary noise. The attribute that plays a pivotal
role in this process is the Message Key.
The Message Key is used to group events that
share common characteristics and are part of the same underlying issue. When
multiple events have the same Message Key, they are automatically correlated
and consolidated into a single alert. This helps streamline the monitoring
process and ensures that teams are not overwhelmed by numerous similar events,
allowing them to focus on resolving the root cause more efficiently.
This consolidation mechanism is crucial for
environments with high volumes of data or incidents, where repetitive events
related to the same issue can flood monitoring systems. By using the Message
Key to correlate events, the system helps prevent alert fatigue and ensures
that only unique, critical issues are escalated. In essence, the Message Key
acts as a tag that binds related events together, creating a unified view of a
potential problem.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Event Rules: While event rules define how events should be handled, filtered,
or escalated, they do not serve to directly consolidate multiple events into a
single alert. Event rules are more about event processing.
C. Alert Priority: Alert Priority refers to the level of urgency or importance
assigned to an alert, but it does not correlate or consolidate events.
D. Severity:
Severity is used to indicate the seriousness of an event but does not group or
consolidate multiple events into one alert.
Thus, the Message Key is the key attribute used
for consolidating multiple events into a single alert, enabling more effective monitoring
and management.
Question No: 5
Which attribute within an event must match
exactly in order to enable deduplication?
A. Metric Name
B. Message Key
C. Type & Node
D. Description
E. Correlation ID
Correct Answer:
B. Message Key
Explanation:
Deduplication is a critical process in event
management systems that helps to reduce redundancy and prevent the same event
from being repeatedly reported. This is particularly important in large-scale
environments where numerous events can be generated for the same underlying
issue. The Message Key is the attribute that plays a central role in the
deduplication process.
The Message Key is a unique identifier assigned
to events that are related to the same issue or problem. When events with the
same Message Key are detected, they are considered duplicates and are
consolidated into a single alert. This ensures that only one alert is generated
for a set of related events, even if those events come from different sources
or occur at slightly different times.
For example, in a scenario where a network issue
causes multiple system logs or alerts to be triggered, the Message Key ensures
that these alerts are grouped together under a single notification, allowing
system administrators to focus on resolving the underlying issue rather than
addressing multiple duplicate alerts.
The process of deduplication significantly
reduces alert fatigue, streamlines incident response, and ensures that the
alerting system remains efficient. In addition, it helps in better resource
management, as the system avoids generating excessive alerts for the same
event.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A. Metric Name: While Metric Name refers to the specific metric being measured, it
is not used to identify duplicate events.
C. Type & Node: These attributes refer to the classification and location of the
event, but do not play a role in deduplication.
D. Description: The Description provides details about the event, but it can vary
even for events related to the same issue, making it unsuitable for
deduplication.
E. Correlation ID: Correlation ID is used to track and link related events, but
Message Key is the primary attribute for deduplication.
Thus, Message Key is the correct attribute for
enabling deduplication, as it ensures related events are grouped into a single,
consolidated alert.
Question No: 6
In the default configuration with baseline
connectors, how frequently is event data collected from event sources?
A. Once every minute
B. Every 2 minutes
C. Twice every minute
D. Every 5 minutes
Correct Answer:
A. Once every minute
Explanation:
In systems that use baseline connectors for
event data collection, the frequency at which data is retrieved from event
sources is a critical factor in ensuring timely detection and response to
issues. In the default configuration, baseline connectors typically collect
event data once every minute.
This interval allows the system to gather
up-to-date information from various event sources (such as servers, network
devices, or applications) while balancing the need for real-time monitoring
with efficient resource usage. The one-minute collection frequency ensures that
potential problems or security incidents are detected quickly, without
overwhelming the system with excessive data processing demands.
The once every minute interval is optimal for
most environments, offering near real-time event collection without creating
unnecessary performance overhead. It is frequent enough to identify anomalies,
such as spikes in resource usage or unauthorized access attempts, and provide
timely alerts to system administrators.
By collecting data at this rate, organizations
can maintain an up-to-date view of their systems, allowing for faster reaction
times to emerging issues. This is particularly important in dynamic
environments where issues can develop rapidly, and early detection can prevent
more serious problems from occurring.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Every 2 minutes: A 2-minute interval would be too slow for environments that
require near real-time monitoring, potentially delaying response times to
critical issues.
C. Twice every minute: While this would provide very frequent data collection, it could
lead to unnecessary performance strain without offering significant additional
benefits for most monitoring scenarios.
D. Every 5 minutes: A 5-minute interval would be too long for many applications that
need quick response times to emerging problems, risking delayed detection of
issues.
Therefore, once every minute is the default and
optimal frequency for collecting event data from event sources using baseline
connectors.
Question No: 7
Which applications are part of the ITOM Health
product?
A. Event Management and Operational Intelligence
B. ITOM Visibility
C. Discovery and Service Mapping
D. Cloud Management
Correct Answer:
A. Event Management and Operational Intelligence
Explanation:
The ITOM
(IT Operations Management) Health product is a suite of applications designed
to provide visibility into the health and performance of an organization's IT
infrastructure and services. Among the applications included in the ITOM Health
product, Event Management and Operational Intelligence are the primary
components that help organizations proactively monitor, manage, and optimize
their IT operations.
Event Management: This application is focused on collecting, categorizing, and
prioritizing events from various sources within the IT environment. It helps
ensure that all incidents, alerts, and notifications are properly captured,
correlated, and filtered to highlight the most critical issues. By streamlining
event handling, Event Management helps reduce alert fatigue, optimize resource
allocation, and provide actionable insights for IT teams.
Operational Intelligence: This application leverages advanced analytics and machine
learning to process large volumes of data and provide insights into operational
performance. By analyzing event data, system health metrics, and other relevant
information, Operational Intelligence helps identify patterns, detect
anomalies, and predict potential issues before they impact the business. This
is essential for maintaining high service availability and performance in
dynamic and complex IT environments.
Together, Event Management and Operational
Intelligence enable IT teams to gain real-time visibility into the health of
their IT services, proactively manage incidents, and make data-driven decisions
to improve overall operational efficiency.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. ITOM Visibility: While ITOM Visibility provides important insights into the
infrastructure, it is not specifically part of the ITOM Health product.
C. Discovery and Service Mapping: These applications are part of the broader ITOM suite, but they
focus more on mapping IT services and discovering assets rather than monitoring
IT health directly.
D. Cloud Management: This is a separate application within the ITOM suite that focuses
on managing cloud resources, but it is not directly related to the health of
the IT infrastructure.
Thus, Event Management and Operational
Intelligence are the core applications included in the ITOM Health product,
providing essential capabilities for maintaining and improving the health of IT
operations.
Question No: 8
What is one of the primary benefits of using
Event Management and Operational Intelligence?
A. To improve service availability by helping IT
staff pinpoint the causes of service issues and evaluate the impact of planned
changes.
B. To increase service agility and produce fast,
predictable results by automating manual, routine, error-prone tasks.
C. To rapidly configure and launch secure,
agentless discovery of hardware and software resources and their relationships.
D. To proactively warn against potential service
outages using advanced predictive machine learning techniques.
Correct Answer:
A. To improve service availability by
helping IT staff pinpoint the causes of service issues and evaluate the impact
of planned changes.
Explanation:
The core benefit of using Event Management and
Operational Intelligence is improving service availability. These applications
help IT teams quickly identify the root causes of service issues and understand
how planned changes could impact the IT environment. By doing so, they enable
organizations to minimize downtime, optimize system performance, and reduce the
risk of service interruptions.
Event Management enables the collection,
prioritization, and correlation of events from various parts of the
infrastructure, making it easier to detect anomalies, potential failures, and
performance issues. When an issue arises, Event Management provides valuable
data that helps IT staff troubleshoot problems quickly, allowing for faster
resolution and less service downtime.
Operational Intelligence uses analytics and
machine learning to process historical data, detect patterns, and provide
actionable insights. This capability allows IT teams to anticipate service
disruptions, identify emerging issues before they escalate, and optimize
operational processes. It also assists in evaluating the impact of planned
changes by analyzing past incidents and predicting how new changes might affect
system performance.
Together, Event Management and Operational
Intelligence help improve service availability by providing IT teams with the
tools to quickly resolve problems, anticipate future issues, and make informed
decisions about changes that might impact services. This ultimately leads to
more reliable and efficient IT operations.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. To increase service agility and automate
tasks: While automation improves agility, it is not
the primary focus of Event Management and Operational Intelligence, which are
more focused on event analysis and system performance.
C. To configure and launch discovery of
resources: This pertains more to Discovery and Service
Mapping, which are part of the broader ITOM suite and not directly linked to
Event Management and Operational Intelligence.
D. To warn against service outages using
predictive techniques: Although Operational
Intelligence does use predictive methods, the primary benefit emphasized here
is improving service availability through better issue resolution and change
evaluation, rather than purely predicting outages.
Thus, the primary benefit of Event Management
and Operational Intelligence is to improve service availability by helping IT
staff pinpoint the causes of service issues and evaluate the impact of planned
changes.
Question No: 9
MID Servers play a crucial role in your ITOM Health
deployment. What does the acronym MID stand for?
A. Management, Instrumentation, and Discovery
B. Messaging, Integration, and Data
C. Monitoring, Insight, and Domain
D. Maintenance, Information, and Distribution
Correct Answer:
A. Management, Instrumentation, and
Discovery
Explanation:
In ITOM (IT Operations Management) deployments,
MID Servers are essential for facilitating communication between the various IT
systems and the ServiceNow platform. The acronym MID stands for Management, Instrumentation,
and Discovery, which reflects the core functions that the MID Server performs
in a typical ITOM environment.
Management: The
MID Server helps manage data flow and communication between the ServiceNow
platform and on-premise systems, ensuring that necessary data is transmitted
securely and efficiently. This management function also includes the
coordination of other tools and systems, making sure everything operates
smoothly and in sync with the overall IT environment.
Instrumentation: MID Servers play an instrumental role in collecting data from
various sources, including devices, applications, and network elements. This data
collection is vital for monitoring and analyzing the performance and health of
IT infrastructure. The MID Server acts as an intermediary that can perform
tasks such as checking system status, gathering logs, and sending alerts based
on pre-defined criteria.
Discovery: One
of the primary functions of the MID Server is enabling Discovery. This involves
automatically identifying IT assets within the network and mapping their
relationships. By performing network scans, the MID Server helps create an
accurate and up-to-date inventory of resources, which is crucial for tasks like
IT asset management, service mapping, and configuration management.
MID Servers ensure smooth, efficient data
transmission and provide critical functions for maintaining an accurate view of
IT operations and performance, especially when handling data from various
on-premise or hybrid systems.
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
B. Messaging, Integration, and Data: While Messaging and Integration are important, they don't capture
the full range of functions provided by MID Servers, particularly Discovery.
C. Monitoring, Insight, and Domain: This is an incorrect description, as it doesn't represent the full
functionality of a MID Server in terms of management and data collection.
D. Maintenance, Information, and Distribution: These terms don’t accurately describe the role of MID Servers, as
their focus is more on management, instrumentation, and discovery.
Thus, the correct answer is A. Management, Instrumentation, and Discovery, as it best represents the critical tasks MID Servers perform in an ITOM Health deployment.
