CIS-RC ServiceNow Practice Test Questions and Exam Dumps
Question 1:
In the context of risk management within a governance, risk, and compliance (GRC) platform, the Risk Statement plays a crucial role in defining and assessing potential risks. One key component of a Risk Statement is the Risk Scoring values, which quantify the likelihood and impact of a risk. These scoring values help determine the overall risk level and guide mitigation efforts.
When these Risk Scoring values are entered into the Risk Statement, it is important to understand which related record types automatically inherit or receive these values for further analysis, reporting, or response planning.
Which of the following records inherits the Risk Scoring values directly from the Risk Statement?
A. Risk Criteria Matrix
B. Risk Framework
C. Registered Risk
D. Risk Response Issue
Correct Answer:
C. Registered Risk
Explanation:
In a risk management system, the Risk Statement serves as the foundational record where risks are clearly defined, including their cause, event, and impact. It is also the place where Risk Scoring values—such as likelihood, impact, and overall risk rating—are assigned. These values help in quantifying the severity and probability of a risk occurring.
The Registered Risk record is a specific instance of a risk that has been identified and formally recorded within the organization. It directly inherits the Risk Scoring values from the Risk Statement because it represents a real-world application of the theoretical risk described in the statement. This ensures consistency and traceability in risk assessment across the organization.
Other options, such as the Risk Criteria Matrix and Risk Framework, are tools used to define and structure how risks are assessed and managed but do not inherit scoring values themselves. Similarly, a Risk Response Issue is typically created to address or mitigate a specific risk, but it does not directly inherit scoring values—it acts based on the already-evaluated risk.
Therefore, when a Risk Statement is created and scored, any Registered Risk linked to it will automatically carry those scoring values, maintaining alignment between strategic risk identification and operational risk tracking.
Question 2:
Which of the following sequences accurately represents the standard stages of the Risk Management Lifecycle, as followed in best practices for organizational risk assessment and mitigation?
A. Assess, Identify and Plan, Control, Review
B. Control, Review, Assess, Identify and Plan
C. Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, Review
D. Identify and Plan, Review, Assess, Control
Correct Answer:
C. Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, Review
Explanation:
Risk management is a systematic process used by organizations to identify, assess, and mitigate potential threats that could impact their operations, goals, or assets. The Risk Management Lifecycle provides a structured approach to managing these risks and typically consists of four key phases: Identify and Plan, Assess, Control, and Review.
Identify and Plan:
This is the initial stage where potential risks are recognized. It involves gathering information, brainstorming, and consulting with stakeholders to determine internal and external factors that might threaten the organization's objectives. Planning includes outlining how risks will be documented, categorized, and communicated throughout the process.Assess:
In this phase, the identified risks are analyzed and prioritized based on factors such as likelihood of occurrence, potential impact, and urgency. Risk assessment techniques like qualitative analysis, quantitative analysis, or risk matrices may be used to gauge the severity of each risk and decide on the necessary response.Control:
After assessment, appropriate risk response strategies are implemented. This could include risk avoidance, mitigation, transference (e.g., through insurance), or acceptance. Control measures are deployed to reduce risk to acceptable levels and ensure preparedness in the event of an incident.Review:
Risk management is an ongoing process. This stage ensures that risks and controls are continuously monitored and updated based on changes in the environment, lessons learned, or newly emerging threats. Regular reviews help maintain the effectiveness of the risk management framework.
By following this logical flow, organizations can proactively manage risks and ensure better resilience and operational continuity.
Question 3:-
In the context of calculating compliance scores within a risk or compliance management system, how is the weighting of individual controls handled?
Select the two statements that are true.
A. Controls do not have equal weight by default.
B. Control weights are fixed and cannot be modified.
C. Each Control has a default weight of 10 unless otherwise specified.
D. The weight of a Control is determined at the time of its creation and can be customized.
Correct Answers:
A. Controls do not have equal weight by default.
D. The weight of a Control is determined at the time of its creation and can be customized.
Explanation:
Compliance scoring is a critical function in Governance, Risk, and Compliance (GRC) platforms. It helps organizations assess their adherence to regulatory standards, internal policies, or security frameworks. A central part of calculating these scores is determining how much each control contributes to the overall compliance posture — this is where control weighting comes into play.
By default, controls are not equally weighted. This allows organizations to prioritize some controls over others based on their importance, risk impact, or regulatory significance. For example, a control that addresses critical security vulnerabilities might carry more weight than one focused on documentation practices. Hence, Option A is correct.
Furthermore, control weights are typically set at the time of control creation and can be adjusted later if needed. This customization gives flexibility to GRC administrators or auditors to tailor the compliance program to the specific needs of the organization. Therefore, Option D is also correct.
On the other hand, the weight is not necessarily fixed at 10 — while 10 might be a common default in some systems, it is not a universal standard. This makes Option C misleading. Additionally, control weights can usually be modified, either during creation or afterward, depending on system permissions and configurations. That renders Option B incorrect.
In conclusion, understanding control weighting is crucial for an accurate and meaningful compliance score. Properly assigning weights ensures that compliance efforts.
Question 4:-
In Microsoft Purview (formerly Microsoft Compliance Center), different roles are assigned to manage compliance, risk, and data policies. These roles determine what actions a user can perform within the compliance portal. When it comes to creating compliance-related policies—such as data loss prevention (DLP), retention, or information protection policies—not all roles have the necessary permissions.
Which two of the following roles are granted the capability to create and manage compliance policies in Microsoft Purview?
A. Compliance Manager
B. Compliance Administrator
C. Compliance User
D. Risk Manager
Correct Answers:
B. Compliance Administrator
D. Risk Manager
Explanation:
In Microsoft Purview, role-based access control (RBAC) is used to ensure that users only have the permissions required to perform their job functions. Among the many roles available, the Compliance Administrator and Risk Manager are two key roles involved in the creation and management of compliance and risk-related policies.
The Compliance Administrator role has broad privileges across Microsoft Purview. This role is typically assigned to personnel responsible for configuring compliance solutions, including setting up Data Loss Prevention (DLP), Information Governance, and Retention policies. They can manage alert policies, review content, and ensure the organization's data handling complies with internal and external regulations.
The Risk Manager role, while slightly more specialized, also has the capability to create and manage policies, particularly those related to insider risk management and communication compliance. This role is focused on identifying, investigating, and acting on risky user behavior and policy violations.
On the other hand, the Compliance Manager role (Option A) refers more to a toolset rather than a permissioned role. It's a dashboard-based feature that provides recommendations and assessments for compliance but does not grant permissions to create policies.
Compliance User (Option C) is a limited role typically used for viewing compliance data or reports. It lacks the necessary permissions to create or configure policies.
Therefore, for organizations needing to create and manage compliance and risk policies in Microsoft Purview, assigning the Compliance Administrator and Risk Manager roles is essential.
Question 5:-
Which of the following platforms provides access to the "Add to Update Set" utility, allowing developers to download and use it for managing configuration changes in ServiceNow?
A. ServiceNow Developer Site
B. ServiceNow Store
C. ServiceNow Community
D. ServiceNow HI Support
Correct Answer:
B. ServiceNow Store
Explanation:
The “Add to Update Set” utility is a helpful feature for ServiceNow developers and administrators who manage configuration changes and customizations across different instances. In ServiceNow, an Update Set is a container that captures configuration changes made in a development instance, which can then be moved to testing or production environments. The "Add to Update Set" utility enhances this process by allowing users to conveniently include items in an update set, especially those that might not be automatically tracked.
This utility is available for download via the ServiceNow Store, which is an official distribution platform provided by ServiceNow. The Store hosts certified applications, utilities, and tools developed by ServiceNow and third-party vendors, ensuring they meet ServiceNow’s security and functionality standards.
By downloading from the ServiceNow Store, users gain access to a supported and up-to-date version of the utility. This ensures compatibility with their current instance version and provides the reliability and support required in enterprise environments.
It's important to note that the Developer Site mainly offers learning resources, such as documentation, hands-on labs, and training materials, rather than downloadable utilities. Similarly, the Community site is used for discussions, solutions, and knowledge sharing among ServiceNow professionals, but it does not host certified utilities. Lastly, HI Support (Hosted Instance Support) is intended for technical support and issue resolution, not for distributing tools or utilities.
In summary, if you're looking to enhance your change management process with tools like the “Add to Update Set” utility, the ServiceNow Store is the proper and secure channel for acquiring it.
Question 6 :
In the context of risk assessment methodologies used in cybersecurity and information security management, particularly for calculating both Inherent and Residual Risk Scores, which of the following sets of values are commonly utilized to determine the overall risk exposure of an organization?
A. Impact, Probability, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
B. Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)
C. Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Risk Score
D. Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Correct Answer:
D. Impact, Likelihood, SLE, ARO
Explanation:
Risk assessment is a foundational aspect of cybersecurity, helping organizations identify, evaluate, and prioritize potential threats. Two key risk types often evaluated are Inherent Risk (risk before any controls are applied) and Residual Risk (risk remaining after controls are implemented). To calculate and assess these risks, four primary factors are used: Impact, Likelihood, Single Loss Expectancy (SLE), and Annual Rate of Occurrence (ARO).
Impact – This represents the potential consequence or damage that a risk event can cause. It measures how severe the outcome would be if a threat were realized (e.g., financial loss, reputational damage, regulatory consequences).
Likelihood – Often interchangeable with "probability," this measures how likely it is that a threat will exploit a vulnerability. It’s a critical part of calculating both inherent and residual risk levels.
Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) – SLE is a quantitative metric used to estimate the monetary loss every time a risk event occurs. It is calculated as:
SLE=AssetValue×ExposureFactorSLE = Asset Value \times Exposure FactorSLE=AssetValue×ExposureFactorAnnual Rate of Occurrence (ARO) – This indicates how frequently a risk event is expected to occur in a year. When combined with SLE, it helps compute the Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE).
While ALE is derived from SLE and ARO, it is not typically a core factor in calculating the risk score itself. Instead, Impact and Likelihood are used in qualitative models, while SLE and ARO support quantitative analysis.
Hence, the correct combination of values for determining both Inherent and Residual Risk Scores is Impact, Likelihood, SLE, and ARO.
Question 7 :
In an enterprise environment, it's often necessary to provide users with a streamlined and user-friendly interface where they can view organizational policies, request policy exceptions, and search for specific controls or compliance measures.
Given this requirement, which of the following platforms would be the most appropriate to leverage for delivering this type of alternate user experience within a ServiceNow environment?
A. Help Desk Portal
B. Catalog Portal
C. Access Portal
D. Service Portal
Correct Answer:
D. Service Portal
Explanation:
The Service Portal in ServiceNow is the most suitable option for providing users with an alternate and intuitive user experience to perform tasks such as viewing policies, requesting policy exceptions, and searching for controls. Designed with user-friendliness in mind, the Service Portal offers a configurable and responsive front-end interface that can be tailored to meet specific organizational needs.
Unlike other portals listed, the Service Portal is purpose-built to serve as a centralized hub where users can interact with various ServiceNow modules in a seamless and integrated way. For instance, it allows developers and administrators to design custom pages, widgets, and workflows without deep coding knowledge. This makes it ideal for creating use cases like policy management, where users may need to search for compliance controls, understand governance guidelines, and submit exception requests — all within a consistent and guided interface.
In contrast, the Help Desk Portal is primarily designed for IT support tickets and incidents, the Catalog Portal focuses on offering predefined service requests (like ordering hardware or software), and the Access Portal is generally used for managing access requests and approvals. None of these are as flexible or holistic as the Service Portal when it comes to integrating multiple information types (e.g., policies, controls) with user interaction capabilities (e.g., exceptions, searches).
By leveraging the Service Portal, organizations not only improve the user experience but also ensure better compliance tracking, reduced manual effort, and enhanced operational efficiency.
Question 8 :-
In a compliance management system, control records are typically managed in various states, including a "Draft" state. When a control record is in the Draft state, only certain individuals or roles are authorized to modify or update it.
Who has the permissions to modify a control record in the Draft state?
A. All compliance users
B. Only the Compliance Manager
C. Only the person assigned the Attestation
D. Only Control Owners
Answer:
D. Only Control Owners
Explanation:
In compliance management systems, controls are essential for ensuring that an organization adheres to regulatory requirements, policies, and procedures. These controls are often created and maintained in a system where various roles and users have different levels of access and responsibility. One important state in the lifecycle of a control record is the "Draft" state, which typically occurs before a control is finalized and implemented. During this Draft state, modifications are usually needed to refine or correct the control before it is published.
Among the available options for who can modify the control record in the Draft state, only Control Owners are usually granted permission to make changes. A Control Owner is a person or role designated as the primary individual responsible for the control's creation, modification, and ongoing maintenance. This ownership ensures that the correct person with the appropriate knowledge and responsibility for the control is making changes.
Here’s a breakdown of why the other options are incorrect:
A. All compliance users: While compliance users may have various roles in managing or viewing controls, allowing all compliance users to modify control records in the Draft state would create the risk of improper or conflicting changes. Therefore, unrestricted access is generally not granted to all users.
B. Only the Compliance Manager: The Compliance Manager often has an oversight role, but their permissions may not always extend to modifying individual control records in the Draft state. Their responsibility is more about overseeing the compliance framework, not directly handling each control's details.
C. Only the person assigned the Attestation: The Attestation process typically involves confirming that controls are being followed, but it does not necessarily mean that the person assigned the attestation has the ability to modify the controls themselves. This role is separate from the creation or editing of controls.
In summary, Control Owners are the primary individuals authorized to modify controls in the Draft state, ensuring that the responsibility for control integrity and accuracy lies with those directly accountable for its creation and upkeep.
Question 9 :-
In which state can control indicators be triggered or scheduled during the management of a system or process?
A. Retired
B. Monitor
C. Review
D. Attest
E. Draft
Correct Answer:
B. Monitor
Explanation:
Control indicators play a critical role in monitoring and ensuring the effectiveness of controls within an organization. These indicators are designed to provide real-time insights or alerts related to the status of specific processes, systems, or control measures. The state in which control indicators can be triggered or scheduled is the Monitor state.
The Monitor state is a stage in which active tracking and observation of control performance are ongoing. This is when organizations actively observe key performance metrics, system behavior, or other control parameters. By doing so, organizations can identify potential risks, weaknesses, or deviations from the desired outcomes. Control indicators are typically programmed to trigger actions or raise flags when predefined conditions are met. For example, if a certain threshold is crossed, the control indicator might trigger an alert, initiate a review process, or automatically activate corrective measures.
In contrast, the Retired state refers to a situation where a control is no longer in use or relevant, so no indicators are actively monitored or triggered. The Review state generally involves a process of evaluating or auditing controls and indicators, rather than actively triggering them. The Attest state refers to the confirmation or validation process, where individuals provide assurances regarding the effectiveness of the control, not the triggering of control indicators. Finally, the Draft state refers to the creation or modification stage of a control, where indicators are still being defined or refined but are not yet actively engaged.
Thus, control indicators are primarily triggered or scheduled during the Monitor state, as this is when active observation and tracking occur to maintain control over systems and processes.
Question 10 :-
Which role is responsible for reviewing the risk response and moving the risk record into the "Monitor" state at the appropriate time?
A. Risk Manager
B. Risk User
C. Risk Reader
D. Risk Owner
Correct Answer:
D. Risk Owner
Detailed Explanation:
In risk management, the Risk Owner is a critical role that is responsible for overseeing and managing specific risks within a project or organization. This role involves various tasks, including identifying, assessing, responding to, and monitoring risks over time.
Once a risk response has been developed and implemented, the Risk Owner is tasked with reviewing the effectiveness of the risk response. If the risk response has been successfully addressed, the Risk Owner will move the risk record to the "Monitor" state. This transition typically indicates that the risk is being actively monitored for any changes or potential issues that may arise in the future. The goal of monitoring is to ensure that the risk response continues to be effective, and to track any new developments related to the risk.
While other roles such as Risk Manager, Risk User, and Risk Reader may play supporting or informational roles, the Risk Owner holds ultimate accountability for the lifecycle of the risk. Here's a breakdown of the roles:
Risk Manager: Typically oversees the overall risk management process and strategy, but may not be directly involved in the review of individual risks once they are identified.
Risk User: May be involved in identifying or working with risks but does not have the authority or responsibility for making decisions regarding the movement of risks through different states.
Risk Reader: Has access to view risk records and data but does not have the authority to manage or update risk states.
The Risk Owner has the authority and responsibility to ensure the risk record is updated as appropriate, reflecting the most current status of the risk and ensuring that it is monitored effectively moving forward.
